LAW-GAT Preparation
Online Testing Portal
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Q1. Members of the National Assembly are elected primarily on the basis of:
( Constitution & International Law)
A)
Territory
B)
Population
C)
Profession
D)
Religion
Q2. An advocate should encourage clients to pursue:
( Professional Ethics)
A)
Lawful objectives only
B)
Any objective
C)
Political objectives
D)
Personal revenge
Q3. Res judicata is contained in:
( Civil Law (CPC))
A)
Section 11 CPC
B)
Section 9 CPC
C)
Section 10 CPC
D)
Section 96 CPC
Q4. A confession made to a police officer is generally:
( Law of Evidence)
A)
Always admissible
B)
Generally inadmissible subject to legal exceptions
C)
Conclusive proof
D)
Equivalent to a decree
Q5. An oath primarily serves to:
( Law of Evidence)
A)
Enhance the solemnity of testimony
B)
Create evidence
C)
Replace cross-examination
D)
Guarantee truth
Q6. A person arrested must generally be informed of:
( Criminal Law (PPC & CrPC))
A)
Grounds of arrest
B)
Names of all witnesses
C)
Trial outcome
D)
Judge's opinion
Q7. Re-examination is conducted to:
( Law of Evidence)
A)
Introduce entirely new issues
B)
Explain matters arising in cross-examination
C)
Replace testimony
D)
Challenge the judge
Q8. The Constitution of Pakistan declares Islam as the State religion under which Article?
( Constitution & International Law)
A)
Article 1
B)
Article 2
C)
Article 2A
D)
Article 31
Q9. A witness is generally competent if he or she:
( Law of Evidence)
A)
Can understand questions and provide rational answers
B)
Owns property
C)
Is above 21 years of age
D)
Has legal education
Q10. When a document's terms are reduced to writing, oral evidence generally cannot:
( Law of Evidence)
A)
Contradict its terms
B)
Identify parties
C)
Explain handwriting
D)
Prove execution
Q11. An advocate owes a duty of candor toward:
( Professional Ethics)
A)
The court
B)
The opposing party only
C)
The media
D)
The public only
Q12. The National Assembly may be dissolved by:
( Constitution & International Law)
A)
President under constitutional provisions
B)
Supreme Court
C)
Senate
D)
Election Commission
Q13. An advocate's first loyalty in court proceedings is to:
( Professional Ethics)
A)
The law and administration of justice
B)
The client regardless of legality
C)
The media
D)
The Bar Association
Q14. The best evidence rule prefers:
( Law of Evidence)
A)
Primary evidence
B)
Secondary evidence
C)
Opinion evidence
D)
Character evidence
Q15. Mischief under PPC primarily involves:
( PPC & CrPC)
A)
Causing wrongful loss or damage to property
B)
Personal defamation only
C)
Wrongful confinement
D)
Perjury
Q16. The Council of Common Interests primarily addresses:
( Constitution & International Law)
A)
Federal-provincial coordination
B)
Judicial appointments
C)
Foreign relations
D)
Election disputes
Q17. The Constitution came into force on:
( Constitution & International Law)
A)
14 August 1973
B)
23 March 1973
C)
14 August 1974
D)
23 March 1956
Q18. The Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction is contained in:
( Constitution & International Law)
A)
Article 184
B)
Article 185
C)
Article 186
D)
Article 187
Q19. Freedom of religion includes the right to:
( Constitution & International Law)
A)
Profess, practice and propagate religion
B)
Avoid all laws
C)
Hold public office automatically
D)
Ignore taxation
Q20. Service of summons on defendants is dealt with under:
( Civil Law (CPC))
A)
Section 27 CPC and Order V
B)
Order VIII
C)
Order XIV
D)
Order XXI
Q21. The doctrine of self-determination concerns:
( Constitution & International Law)
A)
Peoples determining their political status
B)
Trade regulation
C)
Tax collection
D)
Diplomatic immunity
Q22. A lawyer should ensure that legal services are delivered:
( Professional Ethics)
A)
Competently and ethically
B)
As quickly as possible regardless of quality
C)
Only through assistants
D)
Without documentation
Q23. Hurt is generally defined as:
( Criminal Law (PPC & CrPC))
A)
Causing bodily pain, disease, or infirmity
B)
Property damage
C)
Loss of reputation
D)
Financial loss
Q24. An advocate must not assist a client in:
( Professional Ethics)
A)
Lawful objectives
B)
Illegal conduct
C)
Settlement negotiations
D)
Case preparation
Q25. The Grundnorm is best described as:
( Jurisprudence)
A)
A basic norm presupposed by the legal system
B)
A constitutional amendment
C)
A judicial precedent
D)
A treaty
Q26. Section 9 CPC deals with:
( Civil Law (CPC))
A)
Res Judicata
B)
Jurisdiction of Civil Courts
C)
Stay of Suit
D)
Appeals
Q27. Mistake of law is generally:
( Criminal Law (PPC & CrPC))
A)
A defense
B)
Not a defense
C)
A mitigating factor only
D)
Ground for acquittal in every case
Q28. A rebuttable presumption may be:
( Law of Evidence)
A)
Challenged by contrary evidence
B)
Never challenged
C)
Ignored by court
D)
Converted into a decree
Q29. Material facts in pleadings should be stated:
( Civil Law (CPC))
A)
Briefly and clearly
B)
With evidence in full
C)
With legal arguments only
D)
Without particulars
Q30. Proclamation proceedings may be initiated against:
( Criminal Law (PPC & CrPC))
A)
An absconding accused
B)
A witness
C)
A complainant
D)
A magistrate
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